gHari Posted April 12, 2004 Report Share Posted April 12, 2004 One (The?) guest proudly says earlier that the paradox starting the thread does not apply to him:<blockquote>But like I said, that isn't a problem for those who follow the Vedas strictly, since the Vedas don't mention Jesus at all.</blockquote>Here he is indirectly rejecting the alledged words of Christ as not meaningful. Whereas others deal with the apparent paradox, accepting Srila Bhaktisiddhanta and Srila Bhaktivinoda's opinion about Jesus being empowered by Krsna, by taking the verbs in Christ's words to be very present tense, valid for a time and place but not eternity. Are we to understand that the thread was not started by a Christian trying to destroy our faith in the Vedas, but rather by this fellow trying to destroy our faith in Christ and our parampara? Seems shameful either way. Hopefully it was simply a sincere inquiry from a thoughtful seeker. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ancient_paztriot Posted April 12, 2004 Report Share Posted April 12, 2004 Clone! (Mr. Smith, you don't wanna see part III!) (Must be what all the clones are for: to show real vaisnavas are interested in such advanced topics). The ad (STING… to those who know): I mean if other advanced vaisnavas have recently come here to act like me, then it was arranged by providence… (and we really are suppose to reach KC through challenge and intimidation… because of coarse, we're right… WHEN YOU agree with "qualified" me). (I hope they don't ask me my qualifications… %%**… My number? …Uh, that's a government secret… cross our hearts and pray… but don't let me see you do it where others can see.) (CERTAIN peeple may not like that). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
anadi Posted May 21, 2004 Report Share Posted May 21, 2004 How did all start, this exclusivist way of thinking of churchianism? To see this we should understand how was made the colection of books called bible. And how was this collection decreted holy? I found here something http://www.islamonline.net/askaboutislam/display.asp?hquestionID=6067 "The Bible is a huge collection of writings, 38 (+9 disputed) books comprising the Old Testament and 20 (+7 disputed) books of the New Testament. The Old Testament assortment includes books of history, proverbs, myths, legislation …etc, representing the popular literature of the Israelites. They were composed by many scribes, several centuries after the Prophet Moses, peace be upon him. Similarly, the New Testament embodies the Gospels, four different biographies of the Prophet Jesus, peace be upon him, written by Matthews, Mark, Luke and John, whose identities are widely disputed. In addition, the New Testament contains the epistles of Paul, Peter and John. This is as well as the Acts - also due to Paul or Luke - and the Visions of John. So, none of the Bible books can be claimed to be the word of God. It was the Nicea Council in the fourth century after Christ, who selectively sanctified these books to be “holy”, from among hundreds of other writings of the earlier Christians. While admitting the human authorship of these books, the churches claim and teach - without proof - that these human writings were “inspired” by God." Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
AncientMariner Posted May 21, 2004 Report Share Posted May 21, 2004 Its my opinon (which is worthless) that essentially Jesus was a spiritual master so in essence it is true that only way to understand God is through grace of spiritual master but it doesn't mean Jesus is the only spiritual master. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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