Jani/Christianity

[Guest guest]

At 06:46 PM 4/20/00 +0000, you wrote:

>Hello everyone, I just joined the list, a short comment...

>

>> I haven't taken time to look up the exact words. But Jesus is

>> asked in John: 'how do we follow you?' and he responds

>> 'No one comes to the father but thru me'.

>> Fundamentalists use this to crown Jesus as an ultimate authority

>> figure.

>

>This reminds me of an obscure and heretic Finnish text

>I remember having read. It may be just a play with words

>in the Finnish language, but the words we have for 'me' and

>'self' in the inflection used in that biblical sentence differ

>just by one letter. So see how the meaning meaning changes

>when you replace 'me' with 'self'... makes me just wonder

>whether the two words maybe were alike in some of the original

>languages the bible was written in and just got mistranslated

>at some point. Or if the writers of the gospels just couldn't

>understand the more abstract concept of 'self' and thus ended

>up in the current form of 'I'/'me' meaning Jesus himself.

>

>Well, this just as an interesting curiosity, I really have

>absolutely no linquistic or other expertise to judge the

>reliability of this statement. Interesting thought anyway.

>

>-- Jani Mattsson <jpm @ iki . fi> --

 

An excellent point, Jani.

Jesus told me that he meant the

same 'me' that he talked about

when he said 'you are in me

and I am in you.'

So what you're saying is right.

He also meant by father, the same

father that he talked about as

'I am in the father and the father

is in me," and "who has seen me

has seen the father".

So, I guess you could even say it as,

"no one comes to the self that

has no other, except through

the self that includes me

in you and you in me."

 

Love,

Dan